No, Her lawyer could not have a counter argument (except for the occasional irrelevent OBJECTION) Becuase the man does not have the coloboma Iridis and neither does his cheating wife ( Both the man and his wife have normal eyes). The only way for the baby to have coloboma Iridis is for the man NOT to be her father. This would entail his wife's infedelity and the wife's lawyer could not deny it.
The man can definitely use the daughter coloboma Iridis as evidence of his wife's infidelity while the woman's lawyer would have no counter-argument.
For a sex-linked recessive traits, a female would need the two sex chromosomes (XX) to be affected for the trait before it can be expressed while a male would need only one (because males are XY). In other words, females can be carriers while males are either affected or totally free from the trait.
As a rule of thumb, females inherit one of the X chromosomes from their fathers and the other from their mothers. The single X chromosome in males is usually inherited from their mothers.
For a female to be affected for this kind of trait, she will have to inherit one affected chromosome from the father and the other one from the mother. Since the father cannot be a carrier, it means the father must be affected for the trait in order for a female to have any chance of being affected for the trait.
In this case, the man and his wife have normal eyes. This means that it is biologically impossible for any of their daughters to have the coloboma Iridis trait, even if the mother is a carrier for the trait. The worst the daughters can be is to be carriers of the trait.
In summary, the union of the man and his wife cannot produce any daughter with coloboma iridis disorder. The woman bearing a daughter with the disorder is an indication that she cheated on the husband with another man who happens to be affected for the coloboma iridis trait. Hence:
More about sex-linked recessive traits can be found here: https://brainly.com/question/19623414
